CCNA Practice Test | Routing and Switching exam

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two)

A. anycast

B. broadcast

C. multicast

D. podcast

E. allcast

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two)

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic?

A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.

B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.

C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.

D. There are four collision domains in the network.

E. There are five collision domains in the network.

F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two)

A. show interface trunk

B. show interface interface

C. show ip interface brief

D. show interface vlan

E. show interface switchport

How can you solve congestion issues from multiple links aggregating on a switch without scaling issues?

A. Increase the uplink speed

B. Decrease the uplink speed

C. Enable loop-prevention mechanisms

D. Bundle multiple links together with EtherChannel

Which of the following commands best allows you to verify the link status of a MLP link?

A. show ppp multilink

B. show ppp

C. show ip multilink

D. show run-config

High levels of humidity pose a danger to the devices in your network.
What type of threat is this categorized as?

A. Maintenance

B. Physical

C. Environmental

D. Remote Access

E. Local Access

F. Electrical

Which command is used to apply an ACL to an interface?

A. access-group

B. ip access-group

C. ip access-list

D. ip access-class

E. access-class

F. access-list

Which Cisco IOS router prompt indicates that you are in Global Configuration mode?

A. Router#

B. Router(config-if)#

C. Router.

D. Router>

E. Router(config)#

Which is the Hello and Dead interval with a Gigabit Ethernet connection for a BROADCAST Network type with IPv6 by default?

A. Hello 60, Dead 120

B. Hello 10, Dead 40

C. Hello 40, Dead 10

D. Hello 20, Dead 120

What is the Administrative Distance of internal EIGRP routes?

B. 170

C. 90

D. 20

E. 1

F. 110

G. 120

Which command is used to verify your OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies?

A. show ospf neighbor

B. show ipv6 brief

C. show ipv6 ospf

D. show ipv6 ospf neighbor

Which commands are used to statically assign an IPv6 address to a device using a manual interface ID? (Choose two)

A. interface Ethernet0/0

B. ipv4 address 2001:DB8:2222:7272::72/64

C. ipv6 address 2001:0DB8:0:1::/64 eui-64

D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:2222:7272::72/64

Which IPv6 header field specifies the maximum number of hops that an IPv6 packet can take?

A. Flow label

B. Time to live

C. Next header

D. Hop limit

E. Traffic class

F. Extension header

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A. learning

B. listening

C. discarding

D. forwarding

Which microcode is used to test the basic functionality of router hardware and determine which components are present?

A. bootstrap

B. ROM monitor





In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

A. the operation of VTP

B. a method of VLAN trunking

C. an approach to wireless LAN communication

D. the process for root bridge selection

E. VLAN pruning

How does the “traceroute” command allow you to verify if you have connectivity? (Choose two)

A. It generates a list of IPv6 hops that successfully reached along the path

B. It tests the transport layer connectivity for any TCP port

C. It allows observation of the path between two hosts

D. It does the same as ARP in IPv4

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table.

B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.

C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.

D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

What are the two types of authentication methods for PPP? (Choose two)





While determining the best route and any backup routes to a destination, what parameter does EIGRP use to determine the metric for a neighbor to reach a particular network?

A. Feasible successor distance

B. Administrative distance

C. Reported distance

D. Feasible distance

You need to create a standard IPv4 ACL entry that will deny all packets sourced from the Class C private IP address space.
Which of these options is the correct ACL entry?

A. access-list 10 deny

B. access-list 10 deny any

C. access-list 10 deny

D. access-list 10 deny

E. access-list 10 deny

F. access-list 10 deny

G. access-list 10 deny

Which type of unicast address is automatically configured on all interfaces that are enabled for IPv6?

A. Unique local

B. Global

C. Link-local

D. Site local

You have HRSP configured on your network with R1 as the active default gateway and R2 as the standby default gateway.
What is the best way to configure PC1 to ensure that it is using a redundant default gateway?

A. Create a default route to R2, in case R1 goes down

B. Ensure that the same priority is assigned to R1 and R2

C. Ensure that it is assigned the virtual default gateway

D. Ensure that it is configured with two default gateways

You have a Class B addressing space with a subnet mask of /26.
How many subnets were created from the original Class B addressing space?

A. 4096

B. 2048

C. 128

D. 512

E. 1024

F. 256

How does EIGRP determine the bandwidth and delay used in calculating its metric? (Choose two)

A. It uses the worst reliability between the source and destination

B. It uses the lowest bandwidth between the source and destination

C. It uses the amount of time it takes to move information from the source to the destination

D. It uses the cumulative bandwidth between the source and destination

Which code represents a route inside an area in which it belongs?

A. IS – ISIS Interarea

B. OI – OSPF Inter

C. DCE – Destination

D. O – OSPF Intra

What are the possible consequences of an STP failure? (Choose two)

A. Only the users that are directly connected to the switch will be affected

B. Every port will transition to a blocking state

C. The load on all links in the switched LAN quickly starts increasing

D. Due to very high load for the CPU, the switch becomes unreachable

Which device is responsible for translating the private IPv4 address to a public IPv4 address when using static NAT?

A. Cloud

B. Switch

C. Router

D. NAT server

E. Source PC

F. Destination PC

If you choose to connect to your service provider using a T1, which of the following is needed?

A. Data rate

B. Optical Converter


D. Wireless Device

How does the static default route appear in the routing table for IPv6?

A. ::/0

B. ::

C. 0:0

D. 0/::


What are the characteristics of a network ID as against an IP address? (Choose two)

A. Identifies the individual host

B. Identifies the network the host device belongs to

C. Assigned by organizations to individual devices

D. Used by routers to maintain information about routes

Which command can be used to prevent syslog messages from interrupting the commands that you are currently typing in?

A. no login

B. enable secret

C. no exec

D. transport input telnet

E. service password-encryption

F. logging synchronous

G. exec-timeout

What guidelines must be followed to successfully form an EtherChannel bundle? (Choose two)

A. The same duplex setting must be used

B. A mixture of access ports and trunk ports can be used

C. Every link that’s going to bundled together must be using the exact same speed

D. The native VLAN can differ for every port that is being placed into that bundle

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two)

A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

B. to allow communication with devices on a different network

C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet

D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first

E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network

F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?

A. path cost

B. lowest port MAC address

C. VTP revision number

D. highest port priority number

E. port priority number and MAC address

Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols? (Choose two)






Within a deny statement for an IPv6 ACL, what are the possible values for the prefix? (Choose two)

A. Source or destination IPv6 host address

B. Wildcard for the source

C. Any prefix as an abbreviation for the IPv6 prefix ::/0

D. Name or number of an Internet protocol

Which priority value should you set for a switch to give it the best chance of remaining as a root bridge in the long term?

A. 32768

B. 4096

C. 61440

D. 0 (zero)

You are configuring your Cisco IOS Router. You need to setup a password to control access to privilege EXEC mode.
Which commands can you use to accomplish this? (Choose two)

A. hostname

B. privilege

C. enable secret

D. enable password

E. password

What can VLANs be used for? (Choose two)

A. To maximize device resources

B. To segment a physical switch into logical broadcast domains

C. To prevent specific protocols from entering your network

D. To eliminate the need for routers

Which features are used to extend the lifetime and usefulness of IPv4 networks? (Choose four)

A. Private Addressing




E. Public Addressing


G. IPv6

Which physical layer media is not susceptible to electromagnetic interference?

A. Twisted copper pair

B. Wireless

C. Coaxial

D. Fiber optic

Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.

B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.

C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.

D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.

E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

You need to configure your 2960 Catalyst switch to automatically recover a port within one minute that has been placed in the err-disabled state because too many MAC addresses were learned on an interface.
Which commands will accomplish this for you? (Choose two)

A. errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation

B. errdisable recovery interval 10

C. errdisable recovery cause bpduguard

D. errdisable recovery interval 60

E. errdisable recovery interval 1

F. errdisable recovery cause security-violation

What are the considerations when using Cisco PVST+? (Choose two)

A. You can manipulate spanning-tree topologies on a VLAN-by-VLAN basis

B. There is only one spanning-tree instance for the entire switched network

C. It does not allow load sharing or balancing

D. It allows optimal load sharing

You are subnetting the network so that you have 100 subnets.
How many bits do you need to borrow, what is the new subnet mask, and how many hosts will be in each subnet? (Choose three)

A. There will be 254 possible hosts in each subnet

B. There will be 510 possible hosts in each subnet

C. /23 is the new subnet mask

D. 7 bits will be borrowed

E. 8 bits will be borrowed

F. /24 is the new subnet mask

What is the best definition of a WAN?

A. Remote access to resources across a high speed link

B. Local access to resources

C. Local Internet access

D. Core network resources

Which option is a valid representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:010F:0001:0000:0000:0000:0ACD?

A. 2001:db8:10F:1::ACD

B. 2001:db8:010F::1:0ACD

C. 2001:db8:01F:01::0ACD

D. 2001:0db8:1F:1::ACD

E. 21:db8:1F:1:ACD

What is the purpose of the “logging synchronous” command?

A. It enables synchronous sequence numbering for syslog messages

B. It enables password checking on the vty and console lines

C. It sets an inactivity timer for the console and vty lines

D. It prevents syslog messages from interrupting current commands you are typing in

E. It disables timestamps for syslog messages

What protocol is used to synchronize time between various Cisco IOS devices in your network?








What are the two main functions of a router? (Choose two)

A. Determine the optimal path to forward packets and store the decision in a routing table

B. Determine the optimal path to forward frames and store the decision in a MAC address table

C. Forward frames based on entries in a MAC address table

D. Forward packets based on entries in a routing table

You have an ACL entry that has the address of and the wildcard mask of
What is the range of IPv4 addresses that will be affected by this ACL?

A. through

B. through

C. through

D. through

E. through

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.

B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.

C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.

D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

When operating in trunk mode, what command is used to shut off DTP?

A. switchport mode encapsulation dot1q

B. switchport mode trunk

C. switchport mode dynamic desirable

D. switchport nonegotiate

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66

B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77

C. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65

D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

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